tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-4327598978675535878.post7102124220757378007..comments2023-03-23T03:08:24.690-07:00Comments on Theology and Counseling: The Bondage BreakerDr. Corsinihttp://www.blogger.com/profile/11401103560367914853noreply@blogger.comBlogger2125tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-4327598978675535878.post-35578475590236562032011-02-28T05:43:53.793-08:002011-02-28T05:43:53.793-08:00I do agree that demonization is probably a more ac...I do agree that demonization is probably a more accurate term. However, I think that the spiritual realm is very real. The New Testament(gospels) speak a lot of demons entering and tormenting people. However, I also think that there is no room for demon posession for the Christian, for we are Christ's possession. Yet, we can open ourselves up to areas in which a demon might attach itself to an area of our life in which we have opened ourselves up to through our disobedience and choices.Rachelhttps://www.blogger.com/profile/18344036282627027186noreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-4327598978675535878.post-46203141640398694602011-02-23T16:03:29.839-08:002011-02-23T16:03:29.839-08:00Possession is not the right term for what Anderson...Possession is not the right term for what Anderson is talking about in his book. I believe he goes into that. With that term comes the idea of ownership. Because we are Christians, we belong to God, not Satan. "Demonization" fits better.<br /><br />Let’s take a look at your idea that Christians cannot be demonized. You arrive at that conclusion "logically." <br /><br />Major premise: Every Christian is indwelt with the Holy Spirit.<br />The minor premise: The Holy Spirit cannot dwell with demons.<br />Conclusion: Christians cannot have demons. <br /><br />However, if either premise is incorrect, your conclusion follows suit. The major premise is supported biblically by Romans 8:9 and Galatians 4:6. However, the minor premise cannot be supported biblically drawing your conclusion into question.<br /><br />Moreover, when we read what Scripture tells us about demonization, there is no evidence as to whether the authors are talking about believers or unbelievers. We can only come to a firm conclusion one way or the other if we violate basic hermeneutical principles and practice isogesis--imposing a desired interpretation on a passage.<br /><br />Realistically, the issue is not clearly addressed anywhere in Scripture. There are two possible reasons for this. First, it didn't happen--they never cast demons out of believers. Second, It was so commonplace that it was not an issue for the early church <br />As far as the passage in 1 John 1 goes, is that really what that is referring to? If you look at the context, it is talking about sin, not demonization.Matthew Applebyhttps://www.blogger.com/profile/12193778630940290009noreply@blogger.com